AP ECET 2022 (EEE) Question Paper with Answers

1/100
Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross sectional area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms, the resistance of other conductor will be
A) 80 ohm
B) 40 ohm
C) 20 ohm
D) 10 ohm
2/100
What will be the direction of the drift velocity of electrons change in semiconductors with respect to the electric field?
A) Same as that of electric field
B) opposite to that of electric field
C) perpendicular to that of the electric field in a positive direction
D) perpendicular to that of the electric field in a negative direction
3/100
Voltage across 60 ohm resistor is
A) 120V
B) 60V
C) 40V
D) 0 V
4/100
An EMF produced in a moving conductor coil is in accordance with the following law
A) Faraday's law
B) Ampere's law
C) Lenz's law
D) Coulomb's law
5/100
Which of the following statements is TRUE for series and parallel operation of DC circuit?
A) powers are additive
B) Voltages are additive
C) Currents are additive
D) Elements have individual currents.
6/100
Inside of a conducting sphere, which of the following is constant?
A) Electric flux
B) Charge
C) Electric intensity.
D) Potential
7/100
In semiconductors, the conduction of electricity is due to the movement of which of the following?
A) positive ions only
B) negative ions only
C) positive and negative ions X
D) electrons and holes
8/100
If the number of turns and length of a solenoid are doubled, its axial magnetizing field will be --------
A) Doubled
B) Unaffected
C) halved
D) quadrupled
9/100
A Commutator in DC generator can 1.Provide half-wave rectification 2.Provides full-wave rectification 3.converts dc to ac, 4.converts ac to dc 5.provide controlled full-wave rectification.
A) 2
B) 2 .3
C) 2.3.5
D) 2.3.4.5
10/100
If suppose OCC is conducted at speed N1 speed, where N1< Nrated. OCC will lie
A) Above OCC at N_rated
B) On OCC at N_reted
C) Below OCC at N_reted
D) independent of the speed
11/100
In de machines, the field flux and armature-numf axis are respectively along the
A) Direct axis and indirect axis
B) Direct axis and interpolar axis
C) Quadrature axis and direct axis
D) Quadrature axis and interpolar axis.
12/100
Ina D.C. machine, iron losses are independent of variations in
A) Speed
B) Load
C) Voltage
D) speed and voltage
13/100
If a DC shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
A) Will make armature to take heavy current possibly burning it
B) will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal stresses
C) nothing will happen to motor
D) motor will act as dc series motor
14/100
In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
A) Sinusoidal
B) Triangular
C) Pulsating
D) Flat topped
15/100
No load speed of the DC shunt motor is 1322 rpm while full load speed is 1182 rpm. What will be the speed regulation?
A) 12.82%
B) 11.8%
C) 16,6%
D) 14.2%
16/100
Which of the following is not the method of electrical braking?
A) Plugging or counter-current
B) Dynamic or rheostatic
C) Regenerative
D) Eddy current
17/100
A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as ------- by using A low resistance shunt.
A) Ammeter
B) Voltmeter
C) Flux-meter
D) Ballistic galvanometer
18/100
Induction type instruments are used for
A) Resistance measurement
B) voltage measurement
C) AC measurement
D) DC measurement
19/100
If at one end, the two wires made of different metals are joined together then a voltage will get produced between the two wires due to difference of temp between the two ends of wires. This effect is observed in
A) Thermocouples
B) Thermistors
C) RTD
D) Ultrasonics
20/100
The errors in current transformers can be reduced by designing them with
A) high permeability and low loss core materials, avoiding any joints in the core and also keeping the flux density to a low value
B) using primary and secondary windings as close to each other as possible
C) using large cross-sections for both primary and secondary winding conductors
D) low resistance coils at primary and secondary
21/100
What is the magnimde of the voltage developed across the capacitor in a series RLC circuit at resonance?
A) Zero
B) less than the input voltage
C) can be greater than the input voltage, with 90° out of phase with the input voltage
D) can be greater than the input voltage, and is in phase with the input voltage
22/100
capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X. if capacitance and frequency become double, then reactance will be
A) 4X
B) X
C) X/4
D) 2X
23/100
In a L-C series circuit, if XL>Xc. Then the current is
A) lags behind the voltage by π/2 in phase
B) leads the voltage by π/2 in phase
C) leads the voltage by π in phase
D) lags behind the voltage by π in phase
24/100
In a two wattmeter method of measuring the power in a 3-phase balanced system. what is the power factor of the load when one wattmeter reads twice the other.
A) 0.0
B) 0.500
C) 0.866
D) 1.00
25/100
Current of 50 /π Hz frequency is passing through an AC circuit having series combination of resistance R= 100 Ω and L= 1 H. then phase difference between voltage and current is
A) 60°
B) 45°
C) 30°
D) 90°
26/100
What is the magnitude of mutually induced emf. E₂ in a transformer?
A) Directly proportional to rate of change of flux and mumber of secondary turns
B) inversely proportional to rate of change of flux and number of secondary turns
C) proportional to rate of change of flux and inversely proportional to number of 1 secondary turns
D) inversely proportional to the rate of change of flux and proportional to number of secondary tum
27/100
Which of the following current is drawn by the primary circuit of an ideal transformer when the secondary is open?
A) Secondary current
B) Leakage current
C) magnetizing current
D) working on current.
28/100
The no-load power factor of a practical transformer is around
A) Unity
B) 0.2 lagging
C) 0.2leading
D) Zero
29/100
If number of turns in primary and secondary coils of a transformer increased to two times each, the mutual inductance
A) Becomes four times
B) Becomes two times
C) Becomes ten times
D) Remains unchange
30/100
In a transformer, zero voltage regulation at full load is
A) not possible
B) Possible at unity power factor load
C) possible at leading power factor load
D) possible at lagging power factor load
31/100
A 400/200V transformer has total resistance of 0.02 pa on its LV side. This resistance when referred to HV side would be
A) 0.02 L.V
B) 0.04
C) 0.01
D) 0.004
32/100
What is the functionality of a breather in a transformer?
A) It absorbs the moisture of air during breathing
B) Passes cold air to the transformer
C) it is the transformer oil filter
D) to improve cooling
33/100
In a synchronous alternator, which of the following coils will have emf closer to sine wave form?
A) Concentrated winding in full pitch coils.
B) Concentrated winding in short pitch coils.
C) Distributed winding in full pitch coils.
D) Distributed winding in short pitch coils
34/100
When an altemator designed for operation at 60 Hz is operated at 50 Hz
A) KVA rating will increase in the ratio of 1.2.
B) operating voltage will reduce in the ratio of 5/6.
C) operating voltage will increase in the ratio of 1.2
D) operating voltage will reduce in the ratio of (5/6)²
35/100
Two alternators are in parallel for taking one of the alternators out of the system
A) load shared by this alternator is transferred to the other by adjusting the power fed to the prime mover before opening OCB.
B) power fed to the prime-mover is stopped.
C) OCB is switched off
D) load connected to the bus-bar is reduced
36/100
A synchronous motor has no starting torque because of
A) Rotor is made up of salient poles.
B) Relative velocity between the stator and the rotor mufs is zero.
C) Relative velocity between the stator and rotor mumis is not zero.
D) Rotor winding is highly reactive.
37/100
A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when it is
A) Under-loaded
B) over-loaded
C) under-excited
D) over-excited
38/100
A 10 pole, 25 Hz alternator is directly coupled to and is driven by 60 Hz synchronous motor. What is the number of poles for the synchronous motor?
A) 48
B) 12
C) 24
D) 16
39/100
A 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor designed to operate with stator in star, needs W kg of copper for its stator winding. Now if this motor is to be designed to operate with stator in delta, then weight of copper required for stator would be
A) √3 W kg
B) W√V3 kg
C) 3W kg
D) W/3 kg
40/100
The effect of leakage flux in case of 3-phase induction motor is
A) Reduce the torque produced
B) increase the torque produced.
C) increase the operating power factor
D) Reduce the power factor
41/100
Air gap of a poly-phase induction motor is kept small to
A) Reduce the possibility of crawling
B) Reduce the noise
. C) Reduce magnetizing current.
D) Obtain high starting torque.
42/100
The value of operating power factor of a 3-phase induction motor is high when
A) Closed slots are used both on stator and rotor
B) Semi-closed slots are used both on stator and rotor
C) Open slots are used both on stator and rotor.
D) Open and closed slots are used on stator and rotor respectively.
43/100
Pick the correct statements regarding 1-phase induction motors?
A) It needs only one winding
B) It rotates in one direction only
C) It can self-start
D) It cannot self-start
44/100
The type of single-phase induction motor having the highest power factor at full-load is
A) Shaded pole type
B) Split-phase type
C) Capacitor-start type
D) Capacitor-run type
45/100
The most economical power factor for a consumer is
A) 0.8 lagging
B) 0.9 lagging
C) 0.95 lagging
D) 0.95 leading
46/100
Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant?
A) It should run at high speed
B) it should produce high voltage
C) it should be small in size
D) it should be capable of starting quickly
47/100
The area under the load curve gives
A) Energy consumed
B) Average demand
C) Maximum demand
D) Installed load
48/100
The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with
A) Increased quantity of coal burnt
B) Larger quantity of water used
C) lower load in the plant
D) use of high steam pressures.
49/100
Which of the following place is not associated with the nuclear power plants in India
A) Narora
B) Talcher
C) Kota
D) Tarapur
50/100
Skin effect is proportional to
A) Diameter of conductor
B) (Diameter of conductor)½
C) (Diameter of conductor)²
D) (Diameter of conductor)³
51/100
In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of line is less than
A) 200 km
B) 160 kan
C) 100 km
D) 80 km
52/100
Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in the air around the conductor succeeds .
A) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
B) 22 KV (maximum value)/cm
C) 11 KV (rms value)/cm
D) 6.6 kv (rms value)/cm
53/100
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line depends upon
A) Shape of the conductor
B) surface treatment of the conductors
C) conductivity of the material
D) Geometrical configuration of the conductors
54/100
The resistance of an electric arc can be increased by
A) Increasin
B) Reducing the arc length
C) Splitting the arc
D) increasing the are cross section.
55/100
Pin insulators are normally used up to voltage of about
A) 100 KV
B) 66 kV
C) 33 KV
D) 132kV
56/100
Circuit breakers usually operate under
A) Transient state of short-circuit current
B) Sub-transient state of short-circuit current
C) steady state of short-circuit current
D) after D.C. component has ceased
57/100
A differential relay measures the vector difference between
A) Two currents
B) two voltages
C) two or more similar electrical quantities
D) one current and one voltage
58/100
The inductance of a single phase two wire line is given by (D is the distance between conductors and "2r" is the diameter of conductor)
A) 0.4 loge (D/r) mH/km
B) 0.55 loge (D/1) mH/km
C) 0.4 loge (r/D) mH/km
D) 0.55 loge (1/D) mH/km.
59/100
The maximum demand of a consumer is 2kW and his daily energy consumption is 20 units. His load factor is
A) 10%
B) 41.6%
C) 50%
D) 45%
60/100
The most economical load on an overhead line is
A) Greater than the natural load
B) less than the natural load
C) equal to the natural load
D) either greater or less than the natural load
61/100
In case the height of transmission tower is increased
A) the line capacitance and inductance will not change
B) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will decrease
C) the line capacitance will decrease and line inductance will increase
D) the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unaltered
62/100
A 70/6 ACSR conductor is an aluminium conductor steel reinforced having
A) Cross sectional area of aluminium as 70 mm² and the cross-sectional area of steel as 6 mm²
B) Cross-sectional area of steel as 70 mm² and the cross-sections area of aluminium as 6 mm²
C) 70 aluminium conductors and 6 steel conductors
D) 80 steel conductors and 6 aluminium conductors
63/100
Out of the following systems of distribution, which system offers the best economy?
A) Direct current system
B) AC single phase system
C) AC 3 phase 3 wire system
D) AC 3 phase 4 wire system.
64/100
In terms of constants A, B, C and D for short transmission lines, which of the following relation is valid?
A) A=B=1
B) B=D=0
C) A=C=1
D) C=0
65/100
Long distance railways use ------- supply
A) 200 V DC
B) 25 KV Single phase AC
C) 25 KV Two phase AC
D) 25 KV Three phase AC
66/100
Which of the following services uses the quadrilateral type of speed-time operations?
A) Main line service
B) urban service
C) sub-urban service
D) urban and sub-urban service
67/100
The air resistance to the movement of the train is proportional to
A) Speed
B) Speed²
C) 1/speed
D) 1/speed²
68/100
The coefficient of adhesion is highest when
A) The rails are dry
B) the rails are oiled
C) the rails ark wet with dew
D) the rails are dusty
69/100
Single-phase to three-phase system in electric traction is also called as
A) kando System
B) synchronous System
C) diesel System
D) steam System
70/100
A train has a schedule speed of 36 km per hour on a level track. If the distance between the stations is 2 km and the stoppage is 30 seconds the actual time of run will be
A) 260 seconds
B) 230 seconds
C) 1200 seconds
D) 170 seconds.
71/100
The speed curve for a local trian is shown in Figure in this AB represent
A) Coasting
B) Acceleration
C) Braking
D) Regeneration
72/100
In electric traction system. quadrilateral speed-time curve is the closer approximation for
A) Main line service only
B) suburban service only
C) urban service only
D) urban and suburban service only
73/100
Under the influence of fluorescent lamps sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery appear to be stationary. This is due to the
A) Fluctuations
B) luminescence effect
C) stroboscopic effect
D) low power factor
74/100
The size of the earth or ground wire is based on
A) Maximum fault current carrying through the ground wire only
B) rated current carrying capacity of the service line only
C) Depends on soil resistance only
D) maximum fault current carrying through the ground wire and soil resistance only
75/100
What should be the value of earthing resistance for large power stations?
A) 1 Ω
B) 0.5Ω
C) 2Ω
D) 5Ω
76/100
What is the formula used to calculate the number of poles required in LT line distribution?
A) Length/span+1
B) Length/span+10
C) Span/Length-1
D) Span/Length+10
77/100
The current passing through the resistance R1 in the following circuit is when the diodes are ideal devices
A) 10 A
B) 2.5A
C) 5A
D) 3.5A
78/100
What is the potential difference between A and B terminals of the given circuit
A) 0 V
B) 20V
C) 10V
D) 15V
79/100
Long distance railways use ------- supply
A) 200 V DC
B) 25 KV Single phase AC
C) 25 KV Two phase AC
D) 25 KV Three phase AC
80/100
In order to prevent distortion in the output signal after amplification, the input signal must be
A) Higher than the positive saturation level of the amplifier
B) lower than the negative saturation level of the amplifier
C) must be with the negative and the positive saturation level of the amplifier
D) both higher than the positive saturation level of the amplifier and lower than the negative saturation level of the amplifier
81/100
One of the condition for oscillation is
A) .A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0°
B) Aphase shift around the feedback loop of 180°
C) A gain around the feedback loop of one-third
D) Again around the feedback loop of less than 1
82/100
In order to start up, a feedback oscillator requires
A) negative feedback less than 1.
B) positive feedback greater than 1.
C) unity feedback equal to 1.
D) no feedback.
83/100
One condition for positive feedback is that the phase shift around the feedback loop must be
A) 0
B) 90
C) 180
D) 45
84/100
To get the outpur 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice of the inputs are:
A) A=1. B-0, C-0
B) A=1. B=1, C=0
C) A=1.B=0, C=1
D) A=0. B=1,C=0
85/100
The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with the two inputs A and B and the output Y. The voltage waveforms of AB and Y are as given below, the logic gate is
A) OR gate
B) NOR gate
C) AND gate
D) NAND gate
86/100
The following circuit is equivalent to
A) NAND
B) AND gate
C) NOR gate
D) NAND gate
87/100
The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is
A) NOR gate
B) NAND gate
C) AND gate
D) OR gate
88/100
How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present in 8051 based microcontrollers?
A) 8 bytes
B) 16 bytes
C) 32 bytes
D) 128 bytes
89/100
Which out of the four ports of 8051 needs a pull-up resistor for using it is as an input or an output port?
A) PORT O
B) PORT 1
C) PORT 2
D) PORT 3
90/100
Which addressing mode is used in pushing or popping any element on or from the stack?
A) Inmediate
B) Direct
C) Indirect
D) Register
91/100
Function of EA pin in 8051 is
A) Used to enable/disable external memory interfacing
B) used for latching address and data bus
C) used for Power Supply
D) Used for ground
92/100
If the tum on time of an SCR is 15microseconds, then what is the width of the gate pulse which is required to trigger the SCR reliably?
A) 15 microseconds
B) more than 15 microseconds
C) less than 15 micro seconds
D) either less than or more than 15 micro seconds
93/100
What is the latching current of a SCR?
A) The minimum anode current required to maintain the ON condition even after removal of the gate current
B) The maximum anode current required to maintain the ON condition even after removal of the gate current
C) The minimum anode current below which the SCR will go to forward blocking state
D) The maximum anode current above which the SCR will go to forward blocking state
94/100
Which of the following device is latching device?
A) Power MOSFET
B) Power BJT
C) IGBT
D) SCR
95/100
Which of the following device does not have gate terminal?
A) IGBT
B) TRIAC
C) DIAC
D) JFET
96/100
In single phase fully controlled rectifier, if the firing angle is 90 degrees for RL load under continuous conduction, then the average voltage of the load is ---------
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Zero
D) Constant
97/100
A three phase fully controlled converter, if delay angle is 30 degrees and power factor angle between its input voltage and current is 45 degrees, then the converter operates --------- mode
A) Discontinuous conduction mode
B) continous conduction mode
C) both continuous and discontinuous conduction modes
D) neither continous nor discontinuous conduction mode
98/100
In dc choppers, if the input voltage is 100V and output voltage is 50 V. for the switching frequency of 1.0 kHz, what is the ON period of the Thyristor switch?
A) 1.0 ms
B) 0.5 ms
C) 0.25ms
D) 0.1ms
99/100
Which of the following device is the most suitable for high-frequency conversion in SMPS?
A) BJT
B) Thyristor
C) MOSFET
D) GTO
100/100
For single-phase step-up cyclo-converter ----------- type of commutation is required for thyristor switches
A) natural communtation
B) load commutation
C) line commutation
D) forced commutation
Result:
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