AP ECET 2009 (EEE) Question Papers with Answers

1/100
Hard magnetic materials are characterized by
A) high residual magnetism and Low coercive force
B) high residual magnetism and High coercive force
C) low residual magnetism and Low coercive force
D) low residual magnetism and High coercive force
2/100
In dielectric matelials. the dielectric loss angle will be
A) very small
B) medium
C) large
D) exactly 90 degrees
3/100
The suitable material used for heating elements and loading rheostats is
A) tungsten
B) nichrome
C) carbon
D) brass
4/100
A battery is charged at a potential of 15 volts for 8 hours when the current is 1OA. The battery on discharge supplies a cunent of 5A for 15 hours. The mean tenninal voltage during discharge is 14 volts. The watt-hour efficiency of the battery is ------.
A) 82.5%
B) 80%
C) 90%
D) 87.5%
5/100
If v, w and q stand for voltage, energy and unit positive charge respectively, then 'v' can be expressed as
A) v = dq/dw
B) dv = dq/dw
C) v = dw/dq
D) v = dw.dq
6/100
Two straight parallel conductors are kept horizontally one above the other. If the upper wire suspends in air without any support, then the direction of flow of cunent in the wires should be -----
A) in same direction
B) in opposite direction
C) Clock wise direction
D) Anti clock wise direction
7/100
Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Ohm's law is applicable for ohmic conductors only
B) KCL is derived from the law of conservation of charge
C) Superposition theorem is applicable to calculate the power in a circuit
D) Thevenin's voltage (vTh ) is an open circuit voltage across the load terminals
8/100
Same mass of copper is drawn into 2 wires of 1 mm thick and 3 mm thick. Two wires are connected in series and current is passed. Heat produced in the wires is in the ratio of
A) 3:1
B) 9:1
C) 81:1
D) 1:81
9/100
A current of i = 300t is suddenly applied to an inductance of 1mH. Find the induced voltage?
A) 0.3 v
B) 3 v
C) 30 v
D) 300 v
10/100
An ideal voltage source of 10 v, an ideal current source of 1A and a pure resistance of 5Ω are connected in parallel. Find the cun•ent flowing through 5Ω resistance?
A) 1 A
B) 2 A
C) 3 A
D) 4 A
11/100
The resistance of a copper wire is R ohms. The wire is stretched to its double length. The new resistance is _____ Ω.
A) R
B) R/2
C) 4R
D) 2R
12/100
The number of 2 µF, 400 V capacitors needed to obtain a capacitance value of 1.5 µF rated for 1600 V.
A) 12
B) 8
C) 6
D) 4
13/100
The armature resistance of a 6 pole lap wound d.c machine is 0.05Ω. If the armature is rewound using a wave winding, then the armature resistance will be _____
A) 0.45Ω
B) 0.3Ω
C) 0.15Ω
D) 0.1Ω
14/100
If the speed of a d.c motor increases with load torque. then it is a _____
A) series motor
B) permanent magnet motor
C) differentially compound motor
D) cumulatively compound motor
15/100
A d.c series motor is driving a load whose torque valies as square of the speed. When the speed is 250 rpm. the line current is 15 A. If speed is 500 rpm. then the line current is likely to be ____
A) 15 A
B) 21.2 A
C) 30 A
D) 60 A
16/100
The tenninal voltage of a d.c series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5A. Take the combined resistance of armature and series field as 1Ω. If the load current is increased to 1OA for the same generated e.m.f, the tenninal voltage will be ____
A) 145 v
B) 155 v
C) 150 v
D) 210 v
17/100
Two DC machines are tested by Hopkinson test. The rating of each machine is 250 kW. The power input during this test would be around ______
A) 250 kW
B) 375 kW
C) 500 kW
D) 50 kW
18/100
The interpole nunf is propoltional to ______
A) armature current
B) field current
C) product of armature current and field current
D) ratio of annature current to field current
19/100
The number of parallel paths in the annature winding of a four pole. wave connected DC machine having 22 coil side is ____
A) 4
B) 2
C) 22
D) 1
20/100
To have sparkles commutation, the armature reaction effect in a DC machine is neutralized by ____
A) using compensating winding and commutating poles
B) fixing the brush axis in alignment with the main pole axis
C) increasing the field excitation
D) none of the above
21/100
A single phase energy meter is operating on 230 V, 50 Hz supply with a load of 20 A for 2 hours at unity power factor. The meter makes 1380 revolutions in that period. The meter constant is ____
A) 695 rev/kWh
B) 150 rev/kWh
C) 1000 rev/kWh
D) 1/150 rev/kWh
22/100
A moving coil instrument gives full scale deflection for 1 mA and has a resistance of 5 ohms. If a resistance of 0.55 ohms is connected in parallel to the instrument, what is the maximum value of current it can measure?
A) 100 mA
B) 50 mA
C) 10 mA
D) 5 mA
23/100
Which of the following types of instruments can be used to detennine the rms value of AC voltage of high magnitude (10 kV) and of any wave shape?
A) moving iron instruments
B) dynamometer type instruments
C) induction instruments
D) electrostatic instruments
24/100
Which of the following materials is used in the fabrication of swamping resistance of a PMMC instrument?
A) copper
B) aluminum
C) manganin
D) tungsten
25/100
Permanent magnet moving coil ammeters have unifonn scales because ____
A) of eddy current damping only
B) they are spring controlled only
C) their deflecting torque valies directly as current valies
D) they are spring controlled and deflecting torque varies directly as current varies
26/100
The most efficient fonn of damping employed in electrical instruments is ____
A) air-friction
B) fluid friction
C) eddy current
D) Over damping
E) None of the above
27/100
An AC series circuit consisting of a resistance of 6 ohms and an inductive reactance of 8 ohms is connected to a single phase 200 V, 50 Hz AC supply. The current flowing in the circuit would be ____
A) 14.3 A
B) 10 A
C) 20 A
D) 25 A
28/100
The voltage and current in a circuit are given by v = 10 sin (ωt — Ï€/6), i = 10 sin (ωt + Ï€/6). The power consumed is given as ____
A) 100 w
B) 50 w
C) 86.6 w
D) 25 w
29/100
In a circuit, the voltage and current are given as (10 + j5) volts and (6 + j4) amps respectively. The reactive power in the circuit is ____
A) 70 VAR
B) 60 VAR
C) 10 VAR
D) -10 VAR
30/100
When two watt-meter method of measurement of power is used to measure power in a balanced three phase circuit, if one of the wattmeter readings is zero, then ____
A) power consumed in the circuit is zero
B) power factor of the circuit is zero
C) power factor is unity
D) power factor is 0.5
31/100
A coil having a resistance of 5 ohms and inductance of 0.1 H connected in series with a capacitor of 50 μF. A constant altemating voltage of 200 V is applied to the circuit. The voltage across the coil at resonance is ____
A) 200 v
B) 1788 v
C) 1800 v
D) 2000 v
32/100
Two impedances are connected in series. Across each impedance a voltmeter is connected and another voltmeter is connected the combination of two impedances. The phase angle between the voltages across the two impedances when all the three voltmeters read equal value ____
A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 90°
D) 120°
33/100
A 200 / 400 V ratio, single phase transformer has a secondary winding resistance of 0.5 Ω. The primary resistance is 0.1 Ω. The total resistance is referred to primary should be ____
A) 0.225 Ω
B) 0.50 Ω
C) 1 Ω
D) 2 Ω
34/100
The regulation of two winding transfonner is 5% at full load unity power factor (pf). At full load 0.8 pf lagging the regulation would be
A) 5%
B) less than 5%
C) more than 5%
D) 0%
35/100
A 10 KVA, 100/300 V two winding transformer is used as an auto transfonner by connecting the two windings in series to supply a 300 V load from a 400 V AC supply. The maximum KVA which can be supplied by an auto transformer is
A) 10 KVA
B) Less than 10 KVA
C) 40 KVA
D) 100 KVA
36/100
A three phase transfonner is composed of three transformers connected in delta-delta. Its rating is 100 KVA. If one of the units gets damaged and it is operated in open delta, then the rating will be _____
A) 100 KVA
B) 66.6 KVA
C) 57.7 KVA
D) 50 KVA
37/100
The ratio of the primary' to secondary voltage of a transfonner is 2:1. If an auto transfonner is used instead of a two winding transformer, then the saving in terms of weights of a copper required will be _____
A) 50%
B) 33.33%
C) 66.67%
D) 97%
38/100
A two winding transfonner has iron losses and full load copper losses equal to W watts each. It is tested along with another similar transfonner for back to back test. The total power input would be ____
A) 4 W
B) 2 W
C) 1 W
D) 0.5 W
39/100
If the power factor of an altemator is zero lagging the armature reaction is ____
A) demagnetizing
B) magnetizing
C) cross magnetizing
D) demagnetizing as well as cross magnetizing
40/100
The reactive power output of a cylindrical rotor altemator is maximum when ____
A) δ= 90°
B) δ= 45°
C) δ = 0°
D) δ is slightly less than 90°
41/100
The full pitch coil in a synchronous machine has a span of 18 slots. To eliminate third harmonics, the coil span would be ____
A) 9 slots
B) 12 slots
C) 15 slots
D) 18 slots
42/100
An under excited synchronous motor operates at ____
A) lagging power factor
B) unity power factor
C) leading power factor
D) lagging power factor at low loads and leading power factor at high loads
43/100
Synchronous motors are used in situations where ____
A) the load is constant
B) the load is required to be driven at very large speeds
C) the load is to be driven at constant speed
D) the starting torque requirement of the load is very high
44/100
A 5 HP, 3-phase, 400 V star connected squirrel cage induction motor meant to drive a milling machine. At starting the machine takes the current about ____
A) 40 A
B) 100 A
C) 150 A
D) 200 A
45/100
A 3-phase induction motor has a stalting torque of 200 Nm when switched on directly to supply. if an auto transformer with 50% tapping is used for starting. The starting torque would be ____
A) 400 Nm
B) 200 Nm
C) 100 Nm
D) 50 Nm
46/100
A 400 V, 50 Hz three phase induction motor rotates at 1440 rpm on full load. The motor is wound for ____
A) 2-poles
B) 4-poles
C) 6-poles
D) 8-poles
47/100
While starting a three-phase induction motor, a star-delta starter is used to ____
A) reduce the starting current
B) achieve higher starting torque
C) enable the motor to start in the right direction
D) be able to reverse the direction of the rotation of the rotor as and when necessary
48/100
Torque developed by a three-phase 400 V induction motor is 100 Nm. If the applied voltage is reduced by 200 V, then the torque developed is ____
A) 50 Nm
B) 25 Nm
C) 200 Nm
D) 62.5 Nm
49/100
When a single-phase supply is connected across a single-phase winding, the nature of magnetic field produced is ____
A) pulsating in nature
B) rotating in nature
C) constant in magnitude but rotating at synchronous speed
D) constant in magnitude and direction
E) None of the above
50/100
A capacitor start capacitorrun motor has two capacotors , than ____
A) both the capacitors are in the circuit during the starting and running
B) one of the capacitors is in the circuit during starting and the other is in the circuit during running.
C) both the capacitors are in the circuit during starting and one of them is during running.
D) one of the capacitors is in the circuit during starting and both are in the circuit during running
51/100
In order to have a lower cost of power generation,____
A) the load factor and diversity factor should be low
B) the load factor and diversity factor should be high
C) the load factor and diversity factor should be medium
D) the load factor should be low and diversity factor should be high
52/100
A station operates with load factor and plant capacity factor of 0.75 and with a maximum demand of 100 MW. The reserve capacity is ____
A) 1OO MW
B) 75 MW
C) 133.33 MW
D) 0 MW
53/100
A hydro power plant supplied by a river with a discharge of 3000 m3/sec at a head of 30 meters, with a plant efficiency of 79% develops a power nearly ____
A) 697.5 MW
B) 345.2 MW
C) 823.7 MW
D) 423.12 MW
54/100
An industlial consumer has a load of 1500 kW at 0.8 pf (lag) for 12 hours and 1000 kW at u.p.f for 12 hours during the day. The daily load factor is ____
A) 0.833
B) 0.666
C) 1.500
D) 0.800
55/100
The area under the daily load curve gives ____
A) rated power of a generating station
B) the energy generated per day
C) the power consumed per day
D) the power consumed per year
56/100
The material used for the fuse must have ____
A) low melting point with low specific resistance
B) low melting point and high specific resistance
C) low melting point with any specific resistance
D) high melting point and low specific resistance
57/100
Making capacity of circuit breaker is equal to ____
A) 2.55 times symmetrical breaking current
B) 1.50 times symmetrical breaking current
C) √2 times symmetrical breaking current
D) 100 times symmetrical breaking current
58/100
In a thyrite lightning arrester, the resistance ____
A) varies linearly with the applied voltage
B) increases with the applied voltage
C) decreases linearly with the applied voltage
D) is high at low current and low at high current
59/100
The use of high-speed breaker ____
A) reduces the short-circuit current
B) improves system stability
C) decreases system stability
D) increases the short-circuit current
60/100
Which relay is more susceptible to electromagnetic interface?
A) digital relay
B) electro-mechanical relay
C) static relay
D) instantaneous induction cup relay
61/100
Distance relay is the best example of ____
A) unit protection scheme
B) non-unit protection scheme
C) independent protection scheme
D) differential protection scheme
62/100
Switching of unloaded transformer during zero crossing of voltage wave generates ____
A) maximum amount of magnetizmg inrush current
B) minimum amount of magnetizing inrush current
C) zero amount of magnetizing inrush current
D) large harmonics
63/100
The resistance and reactance of short transmission line are equal. At zero regulation, the load will be ____
A) unity power factor
B) zero power factor
C) 0.707 (lag)
D) 0.707 (lead)
64/100
The presence of earth in case of overhead lines ____
A) increases the capacitance
B) increases the inductance
C) decreases the capacitance
D) decreases the inductance
65/100
The sag for a span of 350m, if the ultimate tensile strength of conductor is 5000 kg, factor of safety is 2 and weight of conductor is 0.550 kg/m is nearly ____
A) 3.37 m
B) 6.20 m
C) 1.20 m
D) 10.8 m
66/100
A short line with a reactance of 20 ohms and negligible resistance operates with a sending end voltage of 132 kV and receiving end voltage of 126 kV. The maximum power that can be transmitted with this voltage profile is about ____
A) 400 MW
B) 832 MW
C) 1000 MW
D) 132 MW
67/100
A string of six insulators has self capacitances equal to 10 times the pin-to-eatth capacitance. The string efficiency will be around ____
A) 30%
B) 58.48%
C) 40%
D) 55.55%
68/100
The propagation constant of a transmission line is (0.15 x 10⁻³ + j 1.5 x 10⁻³). The wave length of the traveling wave is ____
A) (0.15 x 10⁻³)/(2Ï€)
B) (2Ï€)/(0.15 x 10⁻³)
C) (0.15 x 10⁻³)/Ï€
D) Ï€/0.15 x 10⁻³
69/100
The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is 1 MΩ. For a length 100 km of the same cable. the insulation resistance will be ____
A) 1 MΩ
B) 10 MΩ
C) 0.1 MΩ
D) 0.01 MΩ
70/100
In a three phase, 4 wire AC system, if the loads are balanced, then current in the neutral wire is ____
A) 1 Amp
B) 2 Amps
C) 3 Amps
D) 0 Amp
71/100
For combined power and lighting load, the distribution system used is ____
A) 3-phase, 4 wire
B) 3-phase, 2 wire
C) 3-phase, 3 wire
D) 2-phase, 2 wire
72/100
In an instument transformer phase angle error occurs due to ____
A) secondary current not being 180° out of phase with the primary current
B) actual transformation ratio is different from turns ratio
C) secondary current is being 180° out of phase with primary current
D) secondary current is being in phase with primary current
73/100
A typical active load is ____
A) blower
B) lathe
C) pump
D) hoist
74/100
Which of the following statements is True?
A) in group drive initial cost is high
B) at no load, d.c series motor can be started safely
C) in case of centrifugal pumps, torque varies as the square of the speed
D) starting torque of a shaded pole motor is very high
75/100
A locomotive with a mass of 50,000 kg on a track whose coefficient of adhesion is 20% will produce a tractive effort of (around)____
A) 25 KN
B) 1 KN
C) 100 KN
D) 250 KN
76/100
Choose the correct statement from the following?
A) distance between stops divided by the actual time of run is called the scheduled speed
B) series parallel speed control is widely used in electric traction
C) meta-dyne converter output is constant current and constant voltage
D) battery electric drive is usually used for urban and sub-urban series
77/100
The specific energy output of a traction motor is 'X' watt-hour per tonne-km and the efficiency of gear is 0.5 and the efficiency of motor is also 0.5. The value of specific energy consumption is ____
A) 2X
B) X
C) 4X
D) 8X
78/100
Which of the following is the characteristic of main line service in electric traction?
A) the operation involves over long distances within frequent stops
B) the operating speeds are low
C) accelerating and braking periods are relatively important
D) the distance between the stops is about 6 kms
79/100
Electric braking through plugging without any additional corrective measure is possible for ____
A) 3-Φ induction motor
B) 3-Φ Synchronous motor
C) d.c series motor
D) repulsion motor
80/100
An electric drive consists of ____
A) motor, transmitting shaft and control equipment
B) motor and load
C) motor. control equipment and load
D) motor, supply system and load
81/100
Most commonly used AC motor is ____
A) synchronous motor
B) slip ring induction motor
C) squirrel cage induction motor
D) AC commutator motor
82/100
A 60 W lamp gives a luminous flux of 1500 lumen. Its efficiency is ____
A) 1500 lumen/watt
B) 250 lumen/watt
C) 25 lumen/watt
D) 2.5 lumen/watt
83/100
The size of wire for wiring a 15 Amps socket outlet in kitchen should be ____
A) 4 mm² aluminum conductor single core
B) 6 mm² aluminum conductor single core
C) 1.5 mm² aluminum conductor single core
D) 8 mm² aluminum conductor single core
84/100
The size of continuous earth wire used with cables in domestic installation should not be less than ____ in any case.
A) 8 S. W. G
B) 6 S. W. G
C) 12 S. W. G
D) 14 S. W. G
85/100
The minimum clearance above ground of the lowest conductor of an overhead line for high voltage lines upto 11 KV erected along a street is ____
A) 6.1 m
B) 5.2 m
C) 5.8 m
D) 4.0 m
86/100
The load on each power sub-circuit should be normally restricted to ____
A) 800 watts
B) 3000 watts
C) 2000 watts
D) 1000 watts
87/100
The main advantage of looping in system of wiring is ____
A) tappings are taken directly from the mains
B) no tappings are taken directly from the mains
C) joint boxes are used
D) the length of wire required is more
88/100
In a CRO by changing the time base, the following can be changed?
A) amplitude of saw tooth voltage
B) frequency of saw tooth voltage
C) gain of saw tooth voltage wave form
D) intensity of saw tooth voltage
89/100
A monostable multivibrator is also called ____
A) a flip-flop
B) a clock
C) one shot multivibrator
D) a free running multivibrator
90/100
The master-slave JK flip-flop is an example of ____
A) level-triggered device
B) positive edge-triggered device
C) negative edge-triggered device
D) pulse-triggered device
91/100
Two-input XNOR gate gives HIGH output ____
A) when one input is HIGH and other is LOW
B) only when both the inputs are LOW
C) when both the inputs are the same
D) only when both the inputs are HIGH
92/100
The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a Power MOSFET is best approximated by a/an ____
A) parabola
B) straight line
C) rectangular hyperbola
D) experimentally decaying function
93/100
A step-up chopper is used to feed a load of 400 V d.c from a 250V d.c source. The induction cunent is continuous if the off time of the switch in 20μs. The switching frequency of the chopper in KHz is ____
A) 31.2 KHz
B) 50 KHz
C) 1 KHz
D) 314 KHz
94/100
The output voltage wave form of a three phase square-wave inverter contains ____
A) only even harmonics
B) both odd and even harmonics
C) any odd harmonics
D) only triple harmonics
E) None of the above
95/100
Microcontroller 8051 has ____ bits of the data bus.
A) 16
B) 8
C) 32
D) 64
96/100
A voltage source 200 sin (314t) is applied to a thyristor controlled half wave rectifier with resistive load of 50 ohms. If the firing angle is 30° with respect to supply voltage waveform. the average power in the load is ______
A) 90.6 Watts
B) 86.3 Watts
C) 60.8 Watts
D) 70.6 Watts
97/100
A single phase AC regulator with an inductive load has the following details: source voltage = 230V, frequency = 50 Hz and ωL=5 ohms The control range of the firing angle (α) is ____
A) 0<α <π
B) Ï€/2 ≤α ≤Ï€
C) 0 <α <π/2
D) π> α>π/2
98/100
When a bipolar junction transistor is operating in the saturation mode, which of the following statements is true about the slate of its collector-base (CB) and the base emitter (BE) junction? ____
A) the CB junction is forward biased and the BE junction is reverse biased
B) both CB and E junctions are forward biased
C) the CB junction is reverse biased and the BE junction is forward biased
D) the CB junction is reverse biased and the BE junction is reverse biased
99/100
The increasing order of speed of data access for the following device is: i. Cache Memory ii. CD-ROM iii. Dynamic RAM iv. Processor Registers v. Magnetic Tape
A) (v), (ii), (iii), (iv). (i)
B) (v), (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
C) (ii), (i). (iii), (iv), (v)
D) (v), (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
100/100
The octal equivalent of the HEX number AB.CD is
A) 253.314
B) 253.632
C) 526.314
D) 526.632
Result:
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